i’ve little or no understanding about something finance or credit score associated, so can somebody inform me if this is sensible. i stay with my mother and that i purchased a used automotive in money 2 years in the past, registered to my title. my mother simply acquired her credit score report from the three bureaus and my automotive is listed in it on her title. my first query is, no matter it being in her title, why would a automotive purchased in full upfront in money, be listed in a credit score report within the first place. isn’t a credit score report solely supposed to point out credit score, loans, mortgages and many others. and second why wouldn’t it be in her title, i used to be 19 when i purchased the automotive and my mother had nothing to do with it, she wasn’t there, i didn’t put her title on something. the one motive i can suppose is that the automotive is registered at our deal with the place she is the renter.